gender - Is the use of aner in 1 timothy 2:12 to be translated . . . Aner is an individual, identifiable male person Anthropos may, as in English, be translated 'man' indiscriminately or as 'humanity', which often is the better translation So 'husband' - No Not unless there is a very strong context ; which, here, there is not Here, it is a matter of the community of the church , primarily Then, also, the
Would Melchizedek protect Abram against the King of Sodom? (Gen. 14) his friends Aner, Eshcol, and Mamre (Gen 14:13, 24) who probably each contributed a similar military force as did Abram to the achieve the victory Melchizedek, king of Salem Jerusalem It is quite evident that Melchizedek and Abram were quite familiar with each other well before this incident because of their common "God Most High"
greek - What is the relationship between faith and righteousness in . . . The KJV inserts 'man' but neither Paul dictated nor Tertius transcribed either anthropos, aner, arrhen or arsen The exact meaning of these would be another question but my understanding is they are human, man, bachelor and male - but none is there in Greek so neither should they be in English
Why did ESV translate Ἄνδρες in Acts 27:10 as Sirs and in Acts 27:21 . . . The Greek word ἀνήρ, ἀνδρός (aner, andros) always means "man" However, when used as a form of address in the vocative plural, namely, ἄνδρες (andres), it might be equivalent to the English "gentlemen" as per BDAG The vocative plural occurs quite rarely in Acts 14:15, 19:25, 27:10, 21, 25
What made the centurion think that Jesus was different from the . . . Aner is the word which expresses an identified man, a particular man of known identity Anthropos is more general and it is my view that 'humanity' in English is a better rendering It becomes important in a number of places where reference is made to the Son of God as manifest and it is interesting to note just how careful the Spirit is
Pronoun implication about Logos in John 1:1-5 Please help track the pronouns and antecedents in John 1:1-5 In the Greek, do the “He” and the “him”’s that refer to the Logos in 1-4 definitively indicate personhood agency, or could the antecedent
Why the term one man appears 9 times in Roman 5? I would say that the emphasis is the matter of headship : representation and progeny 'The one humanity' (it is anthropos, humanity, not aner, an identified individual) refers either to the first humanity, for example verse twelve, or to Jesus Christ, verse fifteen