Why Luke uses ἀνήρ (man) for Mary (a woman)? That is, Mary is not saying she is a virgin, but only that she does not "know" (ie, does not sleep with) a man; that is, she does not live with a man and so is not sexually active and so cannot conceive That is, the word ἀνήρ (aner) does not refer to Mary but the husband that she does not have or know
Why did ESV translate Ἄνδρες in Acts 27:10 as Sirs and in Acts 27:21 . . . The Greek word ἀνήρ, ἀνδρός (aner, andros) always means "man" However, when used as a form of address in the vocative plural, namely, ἄνδρες (andres), it might be equivalent to the English "gentlemen" as per BDAG The vocative plural occurs quite rarely in Acts 14:15, 19:25, 27:10, 21, 25 Most versions translate these as "men" but some prefer "sirs"; but some like the ESV
Have the people sit down. . . So the men sat down - John 6:10 The verse in question reads as follows: (John 6:10, ESV) "Jesus said, 'Have the people sit down ' Now there was much grass in the place So the men sat down, about five thousand in numbers q
What is the meaning of husband of one wife in 1 Timothy 3:2? The "must be" command at least demands a literal application of some sort for this qualification, as do the others in this list, so each local congregation will need to agree when that qualification is literally met Since "husband of one wife" is positively stated, a positive fulfillment of this qualification should be sought And since vs 5 asks rhetorically how one without domestic
Why was Shiloh named Shiloh? - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange Why is Hebron called Hebron? Genesis 14 13 And there came one that had escaped, and told Abram the Hebrew--now he dwelt by the terebinths of Mamre the Amorite, brother of Eshcol, and brother of Aner; and these were confederate with Abram חברון comes from the root chaver friend
Why do scholars think Abraham came from Ur in Mesopotamia? Most scholars still think that Abraham came from Ur in southern Mesopotamia Sumer This seems strange for a number of reasons, including: -The Ur in Mesopotamia is NOT beyond (East of) the Euphra
Pronoun implication about Logos in John 1:1-5 Please help track the pronouns and antecedents in John 1:1-5 In the Greek, do the “He” and the “him”’s that refer to the Logos in 1-4 definitively indicate personhood agency, or could the antecedent