biblical basis - What Scriptures did Arius use to support teaching that . . . Arius took this to mean that, if Jesus was 'begotten', he must have had a beginning This would go on to become one of the chief arguments used by Arius and those in agreement with him "Alone everlasting" — Possibly Isaiah 40 28 (Isaiah 40-55 has numerous examples of monotheistic proclamations), or perhaps Romans 16 26
history - Arius death was it miraculous or was he poisoned . . . Arius' death was it miraculous or was he poisoned? Arius died in 336, at Constantinople of some gory intestinal disorder Some believe that his death corresponded to the prayers of the Patriarch of
What are the similarities and differences between Origen and Arius . . . 22) Origen vs Arius “It is just as plain that Arius and Origen are fundamentally at odds over the eternity of the Son and the quasi-necessity of the Son to the Father” (Williams, 143) My opinion I do not think that the phrase "there was a time when he did not exist" adequately explains what Arius taught
trinity - From whom or what did Arius learn his theology . . . Where did Arius learn his theology? Did he rely on specific theologians that wrote before him? Origen? Clement of Alexandria? Lucian of Antioch? Were his ideas based on the Bible or on Greek philos
trinity - What was the real issue between Arius and Bishop Alexander at . . . The first Council of Nicea was in 325, producing The Nicene Creed At it, Eusebius of Nicomedia spoke for Arius, as Arius was not a bishop Eusebius was The issues fundamental to the debate about whether Christ was a creature (created) angel, or demi-god, whether to pray to him etc had arisen even before Arius was born
trinity - Why is the controversy of the fourth century called the . . . It implies that Arius’ theology continued during that entire period of the Arian Controversy, namely: From AD 318, when Arius publicly criticized his bishop Alexander for teaching ‘erroneous’ doctrines about the nature of Christ, Until AD 380, when the emperor outlawed all 'Arian denominations’ through the Edict of Thessalonica
Why was homoousios not mentioned for 20 years after Nicaea? After Nicaea, Arius was sent into exile and the issue, apparently settled, retreated to the background, nor was Athanasius a prolific writer at this time in any case Meanwhile, Arian and semi-Arian churchmen worked behind the scenes to weaken the emperor's strict commitment to the Nicaean terminology