In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic? Why does Christ or NT writers sometimes use Aramaic; Example Mark 5:41 Talitha Cumi And he took the damsel by the hand, and said unto her, Talitha cumi; which is, being interpreted, Damsel, I say unto thee, arise
which translated means. . . - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange We read in Mark of the Lord saying Talitha cumi and it is immediately added “which is interpreted, Damsel, I say unto thee, arise ” The evangelist may be charged with falsehood for having added the words “I say unto thee” for the Hebrew is only “Damsel arise ”
(Ezekiel 33:13) literary device associated with phrasing . . . None of . . . The way "remember" is used in the Bible is often different from the way it is used in modern English It often involves a question of justice or consideration in a covenantal relationship When used in this way, "considered" may be a better translation than "remembered " God remembered Noah after the flood because Noah had kept faith with God It is not as if God had forgotten Noah during the
Bad laws and deadly rules? - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange Not so fast - the key to understanding Eze 20:25 is in the surrounding verses (BLB): However, with an uplifted hand I swore to them in the wilderness that I would scatter them among the nations and disperse them throughout the lands For they did not practice My ordinances, but they rejected My statutes and profaned My Sabbaths, fixing their eyes on the idols of their fathers I also gave them