Why is xxxx doth not a yyyy make considered valid English? Reading doth not a writer make This sounds all wrong so why it is acceptable to use? The word order looks to be all out sequence (Object-Subject-Verb) It should be "reading does not make you a w
What is the meaning for the sentence: I trust that age doth not wither . . . age doth not wither nor custom stale my infinite variety is an adaptation of sentence from the play Antony and Cleopatra (ACT II SCENE I ), by William Shakespeare Enobarbus, a friend of Mark Antony, says "Age cannot wither her, nor custom stale Her infinite variety " He is saying that Cleopatra is overwhelmingly attractive to men not so much because of her beauty as because of her
Is there a more broadly applicable expression for doth protest too much? The lady doth protest too much comes close, but this seems more targeted at a specific individual: for example, the Glorious Leader could be accused of protesting too much if they go on CNN to repeatedly deny all claims of famine before the reporter gets around to asking about it, but this doesn't seem applicable to an entire state-run
What does Macbeth mean when he says his heart is seated? Whose horrid image doth unfix my hair And make my seated heart knock at my ribs, Against the use of nature? The connotations may have changed since it was written, but doesn't the word "seated" evoke the image of the object under discussion being, to all intents, still? As in pretty much motionless? What am I missing?
Shakespearean grammar: hath and has in the same sentence Doth and hath are sometimes used in the place of does and has, in order to avoid the hissing sound arising from the two frequent repetition of the letter s In the following sentence from Dr Chalmers's Bridgewater Treatise, hath and has are used in the same sentence without any reason for the distinction :
“Thou doth protest too much”: changed usage? [closed] I remember reading somewhere that the original meaning “thou doth protest too much, methinks” is often used nowadays to take “protest” literally, but this changes its original meaning I can’t see
meaning - English Language Usage Stack Exchange A very well known quote by William Shakespeare A fool thinks himself to be wise, but a wise man knows himself to be a fool The first half is okay - a fool thinks himself to be wise (he's in that