Prae- Ante- (before) - Latin Language Stack Exchange Both ante and prae mean "before" in a spatial sense, but ante is used for objects at rest and prae for objects in motion Prae has the sense "because", ante does not When it comes to time, ante seems to be far more common for "before" (I get the impression that prae isn't possible at all, apart from giving that sense in compounds )
classical latin - Why would the praeposition per ever take an ab . . . In book 2 of The Æneid starting at line 210, Virgil has with by blood and fire in the ablative without bothering to decorate these with a pleonastic praeposition: Fit sonitus spumante salo; iamque arva tenebant,
Is praeter formed by adding prefix prae- to stem inter? praeter prep , adv and con} [prae-; for term cf INTER1] Does it mean that praeter is formed by adding prefix prae- to stem inter? How shall I understand the meaning of praeter as derived from those of prae- and inter? See the relevant entries in the Oxford Latin Dictionary: Updated:
What underlying notion connects a fall or leap to prae + caput? Stack Exchange Network Stack Exchange network consists of 183 Q A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers
What is the semantic field of derivatives of prae- + emere? The sense of prae-"before others" is the same as that in praemium Lewis Short say this: praemĭum, ii, n [prae-emo, what one has got before or better than others] (class ) Note that they use has got in its original sense of "has acquired" here
When does a noun take the accusative rather than dative form As a rule of thumb, most prepositions govern the accusative, only, with a minority (ab, ex, de, cum, sine, pro, prae) governing the ablative only With the rare prepositions that can govern either case (in sub) the accusative tends to imply motion, whereas the ablative tends to have a more static sense