word usage - It tastes good vs It tasted good - English Language . . . There is a sense, in state concept expression in English, of the statement's truth extending into the future: "It tastes good" allows as how the taste of that particular pizza, or even that kind of pizza, or maybe any pizza at all, or even just a class of food such as Italian (or whatever the contextual cues indicate is the context), is good and generally liked by the speaker
grammar - Can taste be used as a participle - English Language . . . Your sentence would make sense if you used "which tasted" "The food, which tasted good, was soon " You could also say "The good-tasting food was soon " That may not answer your question about participles, but really any verb can be used as a participle
An edible thing that has a bad or very bad taste If something is deeply unpalatable, for any of a variety of reasons, e g rotten, very ill-seasoned, badly cooked, or even just unfamiliar, one can say that it is disgusting, revolting, inedible, vile, horrible, horrid, etc
“You didnt” or “You havent” – which makes sense? You haven't tasted me The first is fairly literal, and actually a bit cold in that it says "that event didn't happen" However the second is the opposite -- it implies that while the event didn't happen, it could still happen -- as in "You haven't tasted me
Usage of have ever - English Language Learners Stack Exchange This is also fine But now you imply that it was the best food you had eaten at the time you ate that food, but that you have eaten food since then that has tasted better It was the best food you had eaten at the time you ate it on your past trip to that restuarant; however, it is now no longer the best food you have eaten, because you have
Beer never tastes so good or Beer never tasted so good. Beer never tasted so good might be rephrased: Beer has never tasted this good! This beer is the best beer ever! Next, Beer never tastes so good might be rephrased Beer never tastes very good In other words, I don't like beer